(no subject)
9/2/10 19:28![[identity profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/silk/identity/openid.png)
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1) If any state makes any thing a tender in payment of debts which isn't gold and silver coin, then that state has broken the supreme law of the land vis-a-vis Article one Section ten.
2) All fifty states make federal reserve notes a tender in payment of debts.
Therefore:
3) All fifty states have broken the supreme law of the land.
Some of you want to say the U.S. constitution is irrelevant, or the interpretation of the U.S. constitution is somehow fallacious. I'd like to point you to Cornell Law School's site. Notice how there's a hyperlink in section nine for the direct taxes clause, and the link takes you to the sixteenth amendment. The U.S. went through the amendment process to invalidate an original law of the constitution, but the Federal Reserve Act merely went through Congress and then to the President's desk. The exact same thing happens with the war on drugs. We amend the constitution to prohibit alcohol, but we don't amend the constitution to prohibit a less harmful drug like marijuana.
Where's the irrefutable logic which shows how the U.S. doesn't have to amend the constitution?
2) All fifty states make federal reserve notes a tender in payment of debts.
Therefore:
3) All fifty states have broken the supreme law of the land.
Some of you want to say the U.S. constitution is irrelevant, or the interpretation of the U.S. constitution is somehow fallacious. I'd like to point you to Cornell Law School's site. Notice how there's a hyperlink in section nine for the direct taxes clause, and the link takes you to the sixteenth amendment. The U.S. went through the amendment process to invalidate an original law of the constitution, but the Federal Reserve Act merely went through Congress and then to the President's desk. The exact same thing happens with the war on drugs. We amend the constitution to prohibit alcohol, but we don't amend the constitution to prohibit a less harmful drug like marijuana.
Where's the irrefutable logic which shows how the U.S. doesn't have to amend the constitution?
(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 01:37 (UTC)The laws that exist are only those the enforced.
That has never changed once in the course of human history.
(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 01:45 (UTC)(no subject)
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Date: 11/2/10 02:28 (UTC)Actually, it is a set of axioms that logically determines everything that the government should be.
It's not supposed to result in that. But not following them will result in a failed system.
Incorrect. All laws that are written down could and should be enforced. Selective enforcement degrades the rule of law and makes life arbitrarily bound to the whim of those in power.
(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 01:48 (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 01:49 (UTC)(no subject)
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Date: 10/2/10 01:55 (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 02:05 (UTC)(no subject)
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Date: 10/2/10 02:26 (UTC)In other words you're reading it wrong.
(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 02:28 (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 02:29 (UTC)No, I'm not reading it wrong.
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From:I noticed that too.
Date: 11/2/10 00:24 (UTC)Re: I noticed that too.
From:(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 02:33 (UTC)Article one, Section ten specifically refers to "no state" making things other forms of payment legal tender, but does not prohibit the union from making other forms of payment legal tender. Which indeed the union does.
(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 02:38 (UTC)You cannot resolve the contradiction.
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Date: 10/2/10 02:37 (UTC)Because Article I, Section 10 limits a state's power and not the power of the United States government? Congressional acts making federal reserve notes legal tender preempts any state law on the matter. So, even assuming that every single state has passed an unconstitutional act making federal reserve notes legal tender (a proposition you have failed to actually support with evidence), the federal act making federal reserve notes legal tender, which is a constitutional exercise of the federal government's power under Article I, Section 8, would still control.
(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 02:39 (UTC)Which law in article 1 gives Congress the power to declare federal reserve notes legal tender? Is a federal reserve note a bill of credit, or is it a way of paying off a debt? You cannot say it's both.
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Date: 10/2/10 02:42 (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 03:25 (UTC)So you fail there.
Further:
Even gold is a fiat currency.
Fiat \Fi"at\, n. [L., let it be done, 3d pers. sing., subj. pres., fr. fieri, used as pass. of facere to make. Cf. Be.]
1. An authoritative command or order to do something; an effectual decree. [1913 Webster]
His fiat laid the corner stone. --Willis. [1913 Webster]
2. (Eng. Law)
(a) A warrant of a judge for certain processes.
(b) An authority for certain proceedings given by the Lord Chancellor's signature. [1913 Webster]
We officially declare that gold has value beyond its usefulness in jewelry, dentistry, or electronics manufacture, and by that fiat it becomes money redeemable for goods or services. There is very little difference in fact or in practice between this and printing un-reproducible paper notes to fulfill the same purpose.
(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 04:51 (UTC)(no subject)
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From:L'etat, c'est mois!
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Date: 10/2/10 03:56 (UTC)(no subject)
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Date: 10/2/10 05:11 (UTC)THE HOLY MARKET AMEN!
Date: 10/2/10 21:50 (UTC)Who decides gold and silver are worth anything beyond mere industrial or crafting uses?
There's your fiat. =]
The wingnuts say...
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Date: 10/2/10 09:39 (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 10/2/10 13:21 (UTC)(no subject)
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Date: 10/2/10 19:09 (UTC)Gold is still a fiat currency.
Date: 10/2/10 21:50 (UTC)Re: Gold is still a fiat currency.
Date: 10/2/10 22:24 (UTC)Re: Gold is still a fiat currency.
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From:Hairsplitting.
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Date: 11/2/10 02:38 (UTC)(no subject)
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