As has been pretty well known, the book Guns, Germs, and Steel lays out the thesis that the rise of Europe was due to the violent competition of European states with each other.
Except in the 20th and 21st Century two of the most powerful states in the world are not in Europe, but in North America, where large-scale violent competition between states has been rather limited. The USA has had several armed conflicts with Mexico, carving half of it off, and twice invaded Canada, while there were also smaller individual instances of Mexican and US raiders targeting other states.
Yet relative to say, Europe or Asia, or even South America, North American history has been relatively pacific in an inter-state sense. There has been all of one major war between separate states in North America, and the primary set of wars on this continent have been civil wars. Thus, by the Diamond thesis North America should have stagnated.
Yet again in practice today there is one continent whose internal and external politics directly affect all the others: North America, where on the whole the various states have had in some ways much more in the way of prolonged periods of peace than endless violent jostling. Wouldn't this in fact be the most major undercutting element of Diamond's thesis? The North American continent is primarily dominated by three countries, Canada, the USA, and Mexico, as well as smaller states to the south. On the whole the continent's history is not one of endless competition between evenly matched states but rather the extermination of natives, and the emergence of megastates that spanned huge areas of which the USA emerged as the greatest single global influence.
It would seem, too, that as the global rise of North America had to do with the twin disasters of the two world wars in weakening all the other Great Powers in Europe, Eurasia, and Asia, that this further undercuts the thesis by having the one oasis of stability and the absence of endless competition be the area that became the single strongest one by default. The rise of North America, ultimately, was due to avoiding major damage and the risks of endless competition, which would seem to argue that if anything the root to a truly peaceful and prosperous world really is in the end of more violent competition rather than the encouragement of it for some simplistic viewpoint that war makes things alive.
Except in the 20th and 21st Century two of the most powerful states in the world are not in Europe, but in North America, where large-scale violent competition between states has been rather limited. The USA has had several armed conflicts with Mexico, carving half of it off, and twice invaded Canada, while there were also smaller individual instances of Mexican and US raiders targeting other states.
Yet relative to say, Europe or Asia, or even South America, North American history has been relatively pacific in an inter-state sense. There has been all of one major war between separate states in North America, and the primary set of wars on this continent have been civil wars. Thus, by the Diamond thesis North America should have stagnated.
Yet again in practice today there is one continent whose internal and external politics directly affect all the others: North America, where on the whole the various states have had in some ways much more in the way of prolonged periods of peace than endless violent jostling. Wouldn't this in fact be the most major undercutting element of Diamond's thesis? The North American continent is primarily dominated by three countries, Canada, the USA, and Mexico, as well as smaller states to the south. On the whole the continent's history is not one of endless competition between evenly matched states but rather the extermination of natives, and the emergence of megastates that spanned huge areas of which the USA emerged as the greatest single global influence.
It would seem, too, that as the global rise of North America had to do with the twin disasters of the two world wars in weakening all the other Great Powers in Europe, Eurasia, and Asia, that this further undercuts the thesis by having the one oasis of stability and the absence of endless competition be the area that became the single strongest one by default. The rise of North America, ultimately, was due to avoiding major damage and the risks of endless competition, which would seem to argue that if anything the root to a truly peaceful and prosperous world really is in the end of more violent competition rather than the encouragement of it for some simplistic viewpoint that war makes things alive.
(no subject)
Date: 30/5/12 19:49 (UTC)If so, and America's great successes are founded upon a base of fortunate timing, it would make for an interesting conundrum; as that time of little to no competition has long since ended.
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Date: 31/5/12 03:29 (UTC)War itself is horror and slaughter.
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Date: 30/5/12 21:16 (UTC)"The non-equal technological pace of the various societies is due to inequalities in material resources available to them, and the non-equal way in which the spread of innovation is effected by geography"
(no subject)
Date: 30/5/12 21:22 (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 30/5/12 21:42 (UTC)Diamond's thesis is about the broad pace of technological change and its variations over the past 50,000 years. It's about answering why wheat agriculture spread so fast across Eurasia, but maize agriculture spread so slowly out of central America. It's about why Spanish And Portuguese adventures were able to trounce all over Amerindian empires, but the Greenland Norse died out where the Eskimos survived.
The workings of a modern (though autocratic) economy in a largely flat world over the short term just aren't part of the thesis.
(no subject)
Date: 31/5/12 00:24 (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 31/5/12 02:58 (UTC)> if people actually look into what China's imperial system actually was able to do, especially relative to savage,
> ignorant, squalid Europe where people treated the plague by waving a cross and annointing oil over someone's\
> forehead
I think you've missed the point. The very fact that China was responsible for so many early innovations, and was so much more technologically advanced than Europe for so long, forces us to wonder what happened that reversed that trend, such that a few hundred years after it invented gun powder it was asymmetrically dominated by foreigners using that innovation to greater advantage. Part of the answer in Diamond's opinion was that great turning inward after the political forces behind the treasure fleets were discredited and ousted, and such a turning inward could only happen on such a scale because of the potency and sweep of Chinese Imperial power.
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Date: 3/6/12 03:44 (UTC)The truth that there are a large number of factors, does not mean that some particular factor is not the largest. I (actually, Diamond) has a good reason for this assertion.
> one of every five humans was an inhabitant of the Americas altogether when the only things they had to do
> that with were literal manpower and stone tools.
I kind of gather that you either haven't actually read GG&S, or you have forgotten the better part of it.
The question is, why did technology progress at different rates among the various different societies. You offer as a 'factor' when considering one facet (the spread of intensive agriculture in the Americas as opposed to the spread of intensive agriculture across Eurasia) that in the Americas they didn't have all the technological resources that were had in Eurasia.
But dude, that's not the answer, that's the QUESTION.
(no subject)
Date: 31/5/12 00:10 (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 30/5/12 20:41 (UTC)Generally, except for the American South during the Civil War and the original states during the revolution, the United States has been a state with a conflict oriented military and leadership body and the luxury of an isolated, mostly "peacetime" economy which is something of a "low stress" means of maintaining a military presence.
Another aspect you neglect is the fact--until post WWII--the primary focus of the US Federal level has been international politics, economy, and conflict. Only recently (in proportion) has the Federal level of the US government seemed to change focus toward the domestic political situation and the ongoing conflict between state's rights and the Federal level. This means the Federal level was a professional, standing body primarily focused on international conflict, cooperation, and the reasons behind warfare for a century or two.
So, the rise of North America is most likely due to a combination of conflict-oriented culture inherited with the people and political systems created and a degree of isolation from direct danger while engaged in conflict abroad.
(no subject)
Date: 31/5/12 00:21 (UTC)To claim the antebellum US military and for that matter the US military up to the post-WWII era was geared to combat is so silly as to not even bother justifying with a response. It shows a fundamental ignorance of US history and social structure and how it actually works. To use one example, the USA of 1940 had an army the size of Romania and no armored forces whatsoever. That I assure you is not a combat force, that's a pretty paradiing force for ceremonies at the most generous.
(no subject)
Date: 31/5/12 19:57 (UTC)So, Canada inherited a European political bent. Not only that, but they inherited a tendency to go to war as if they were a European country under the command of a European country... Just not with the high levels of risk of conflict at home. If anything, the Canadians are more generic North American States than the other two because those two have actually had more recent and large-scale armed incursions of each other...
"The Civil War only partially changed this aspect of society, while Mexico of course has almost had civil wars as the national pasttime."
Okay, so Mexico inherited a European bent and the European history of continuous conflict at home rather than abroad in the original European model instead of the US and Canadian models of conflict abroad?
What are you arguing?
"To claim the antebellum US military and for that matter the US military up to the post-WWII era was geared to combat is so silly as to not even bother justifying with a response. It shows a fundamental ignorance of US history and social structure and how it actually works. To use one example, the USA of 1940 had an army the size of Romania and no armored forces whatsoever. That I assure you is not a combat force, that's a pretty paradiing force for ceremonies at the most generous."
First, which war?
Second, I was talking about command structure (civil and military) as well as maintenance of a cadre of experienced military veteran commanders. By tradition, until very recently, the US practically dismembers it's ground forces after every victory.
Okay, not traditionally, but the "peace dividend" isn't a new thing.
This actually means--for each conflict--there's a tendency to re-assemble the US military based on the current conflict and recent experiences (as carried around in the heads of the senior military commanders who are typically combat vets of the last war).
So, for example, the US Army in 1940 had an Army the size of Romania being led by primarily experienced combat veterans, running wargames based on foreign experience in France and China to identify what equipment was needed, what operational units would be formed, etc. It also had a large base of military-age manpower to pull from, and established a massive number of camps for training under the same retained cadre.
In other words, in the New World model, the lack of need to maintain a standing army but retention of military cadre--like Nazi Germany--allowed the US and Canada to create military forces for the current conflict more ably than many European countries--like Romania--who were forced to go to war with what they had and then try to change slowly. About the only three wars I can think of off the top of my head where the US Army fought with what they had on hand are Grenada in 1983, Desert Shield/Desert Storm in 1991/1992, and the Korean War in the beginning.
Even then, in Korea, it was a mass recall of combat vets and then training/retraining through a cadre system with gear upgraded as it came in.
(no subject)
Date: 1/6/12 20:23 (UTC)2) No, Mexico developed a New World model of state that was very different from European states, first and foremost from the working to death of large numbers of natives, second from evolving a race-based caste system built on manual labor, third from having a far vaster territorial expanse than all European states of the 1840s bar the Ottoman Empire and Russia.
3) All of them. The old USA was vehemently, almost ludicrously soldier-phobic, and its army learned how to dig trenches and build bridges, not how to know how to load and fire rifles or drill at regimental and division levels. This is a crucial distinction of the USA from all other states of the time bar the UK, with somewhat less reason. The US Army invariably with the major exception of the US Civil War and WWI before the 1950s was around 10,000 at the most, and distributed at that in far-flung garrisons and even more bureaucratically sclerotic and top-heavy than the modern variety. This system was in fact a gateway to disaster, inflicted needless battlefield defeats the USA never need to have done with a proper military system, and is one that frankly put only worked because the USA was smart enough never to go to war with a serious enemy that would expose how pitiful the system actually was.
(no subject)
Date: 30/5/12 20:41 (UTC)Uhm.... no.
The "Diamond" thesis (there are several, but the one pertinent here) is that Europe expressed a Goldilocks balance between isolation on the one hand, and monolithic political control on the other. the typical examples of stultification by isolation being Tierra del Fuego, the Australian Aborigines, and various Islanders. The main example of stultification by political monolithic action being China and its turn away from exploration when politics shifted away from the successors to Cheng ho (though Japan's history with Gun use is also mentioned). Diamond's point was that in Europe, each nation state would have access to the technological innovations of its neighbors (lack of isolation), and no central authority could force the whole of Europe to give up technologies for cultural reasons ( lack of political monolithic-ness).
The "Europe becoming masterful via excessive conflict" thesis is an older, pre-Diamond one... one that Diamond is supplanting, rather than re-enforcing.
Now, if we wish to extend such judgment to the modern situation, the question can't just be about the isolation or political homogeneity of actors in North America, but it has to about actors in the world, since post 18th century technology makes continental geographical divisions essentially irrelevant to the spread of innovation.
(no subject)
Date: 31/5/12 00:16 (UTC)The claim that European trends tended against monoliths is also flawed. Even leaving out Russia, in 1914 Europe was nearly a monolithic society and at its peak, while post-WWII it was divided between the American and Soviet Empires.
China turned away from sea voyages for fear of conquest by the very nomads that actually conquered them. It was no more a doom of China to do this than the USA giving iup voyages in space.
(no subject)
Date: 31/5/12 03:10 (UTC)Diamond's explanations are not, nor are they meant to be, in any way predictive of the post-industrial world. They are meant to explain original asymmetries between clashing societies in the pre-industrial world.
For instance, local agricultural success depends on the local inventory of domesticatable plants and animals. An area with few candidates for domestication (such as Australia) is understandably less likely to be a center of agricultural innovation. This explains why aborigines who had lived in Australia for 50,000 years depended on agriculture less (and had lower population density, and less complicated societies) than people who had been living in mezoamerica for a mere 10,000 years.
But such local inventories are irrelevant in an interconnected world where species in one corner can be discovered, transplanted, and exploited on the other side of the world in a matter of years, or months.
(no subject)
Date: 1/6/12 20:24 (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 3/6/12 03:48 (UTC)True, but I'm not sure what the point is?
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Date: 30/5/12 20:57 (UTC)(no subject)
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Date: 31/5/12 00:26 (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 31/5/12 07:52 (UTC)This confuses me? Most of Europe consists of representative democracies.
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Date: 31/5/12 12:01 (UTC)In the current situation, if the US quit all military exploits, their hegemony would degrade rather quickly. The size of the US military in proportion to the economy is much larger than any previous hegemon's, and its contraction mirrors the unsustainable trajectory of the 19th century british empire. The argument can be made that the american hegemony is already in decay over the last decade, whereas the european hegemony had degraded completely during the two world wars. It seems that it could be inferred that the next hegemon to replace the US might be something like a united Eurasia or perhaps a pan-american group of nations. Economically growth has become unsustainable in the West and is trumped by the BRIC economies. What's unclear as yet is whether future hegemony will depend on energy resources, capital concentration, or sheer military might. As the criteria for trade wars and military conflict constantly change, it would be difficult to say which factors will be of greatest importance in the distant future.
(no subject)
Date: 1/6/12 20:36 (UTC)