(no subject)

Date: 10/3/10 05:57 (UTC)
I don't know.

Well, now at least we are getting somewhere.

Do you think that the meaning there is that we should seek payback?

It depends who you mean by "we." If you means disciples of Christ living under the new covenant, then no. But that's not because God was telling the children of Israel to be unjust. So if we can assume for the moment that God was describing divine justice in those OT verses I cited, why would Jesus tell His disciples to do otherwise? Is it because He disagreed with the Father? Is it because He had an unjust agenda? Or can you think of another reason?

Or maybe only under some circumstances? If so what would they be?

No. But these are the kinds of questions a pharisaical legalist would be inclined to ask.
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