(no subject)

Date: 23/12/17 20:03 (UTC)
johnny9fingers: (Default)
I don't know why they wouldn't. But they may possibly ascribe the latter debt shareaddition as something dependent upon a few years of derivative mis-selling. As pointed out the economic "correction" started under W, BTW, and with the fall of the odd bank or two.

Blaming the single right person(s) is probably difficult. But the repealing of Glass-Stegall under WJC may have had an effect here. As usual, it's complicated. Obama has his sins, certainly; but blaming him for authorising borrowing after the financial crash is a bit odd given he kept the US free of the worst sort of economic crisis that hit some other nations in difficulties caused by the same events - events whose genesis was in the US.
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