(no subject)

Date: 7/10/13 17:31 (UTC)
So it would only set a precedent if the Republicans wanted to defund a law before it came into effect rather than if they wanted to cut entitlement spending for a law that is already in effect? Aren't they both shutting down the government in order to get what they want? I'm not seeing the major difference that would cause the two situations to be different.

They seem perfectly willing, judging from the interview I saw the other day with Boehner, to continue it to the bitter end
What exactly is the bitter end?

It's about the the Republicans staging shut downs every time a law they don't like is successfully passed.

Okay, the thread below seems to deal with this, so I'll continue this there.
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