(no subject)

Date: 17/2/12 03:51 (UTC)
> Because in B, the employer, who pays most/all of the insurance, is still
> responsible for what is passed along.

Why? It can only be because of the presumption that the predicted rise in insurance fees will be automatically passed along by the insurance vendor. It is seen as mechanistic and automatic, because merchants and businessmen are not 'responsible' for pricing shift. We pretend they have no agency.

> Once the money leaves the hands in the form of wages, they're no longer responsible
> for what happens in that way.

Only if the increase in wages necessary to offset the value of the contraception inclusion is NOT seen as mechanistic and automatic. Otherwise attaching special "responsibility changing" super powers to one transaction (employer to employee) as opposed to another (employer to insurance vendor) is magical thinking.
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