ext_85117 (
thies.livejournal.com) wrote in
talkpolitics2010-04-07 08:56 am
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Using the constitution as toilet paper - again. The Obama administration authorized the killing of Anwar al-Awlaki who holds US citizenship. There is some nefarious precedent being created by allowing the President to order the killing of American citizens, regardless of their alleged crimes, without granting them their 5th Amendment rights. Bush with his renditions, and the implications of the Patriot Act was bad enough, but ordering a US citizen to be assassinated as Obama now did takes it to a whole new level. I bet Stalin would be proud of Barry Soetoro. Anyone want to wager which other parts of the constitution will be considered void by Obama until he gets kicked out of the white house?
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This does not follow logically from what you said. You're skipping this part of the clause:
It's talking specifically about what is required to convict, which means you need a trial first.
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"In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy and public trial, by an impartial jury. . . and to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation; to be confronted with the witnesses against him; to have compulsory process for obtaining witnesses in his favor, and to have the assistance of counsel for his defense."
Unless you want to argue that treason is a suit at law, equity, or admiralty (the other major categories of litigation at the time) it appears that all the trappings of criminal proceedings would apply. Unless it was treason against a member of the armed forces.
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So, it does require a court and jury, as treason is a crime.
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might I point out that Awlaki is neither part of the US nor any other military.
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That said, I do dispute that Al-Awlaki is not a member of Al Qaeda, which makes him a military foe of the United States by definition. But that's a seperate issue.
Anyway, that's quite a wall of text you've got there there, are you able to you quote me the specific phrase or paragraph that says that a trial is required?
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I have to say, assuming that it's true, I suspect the U.S. would then be probably the first country in history where it was not at least technically legal for commanding officers to execute soldiers in the field for certain crimes.
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*hearty clap*
Re: *hearty clap*
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