ext_345465 ([identity profile] ninboydean.livejournal.com) wrote in [community profile] talkpolitics 2010-11-17 02:13 pm (UTC)

Not at all - in feudal society, rights didn't exist as we know them now.

This is a completely different issue. Your argument can still justify feudal relation since the feudal monopoly was the only means of access to production, and so serfs should have been grateful to their lords for providing them with jobs &c.

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