Not at all. Rather, what is the precise difference between selling guns to people who use them for acts that are deemed illegal by US law? It can't be that the guns were sold, as St. Ray Gunn did that. It can't be knowing they'll be used by bad people for bad things, as Ray Gunn did that too. It can't even be selling them to Latin Americans as the ultimate goal of Reagan's sordid little scandal was to arm sides in a civil war we weren't legally supposed to be involved with. You can claim it's a legal objection, but the claim is not true for being stated, the moreso when we consider how the GOP reacted to Iran-Contra.